Interesting. On one hand you berate the OP for not knowing the lease they use. After the OP rightfully calls you out on your ignorance, you then make a statement which presumes that the tenant has no culpability in understanding said lease.
In other words, if the tenant signs the lease of his or her own free will thereby accepting its provisions, then how does equate to the landlord being "cheap"? The market will bare what it will bare, no?